Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 01:32
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why did my ex-narcissist move so fast with his new supply marriage engagement moving in, etc.?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Voluptates qui qui deleniti laborum et sed corrupti.
You'll usually find your answer there.